0$ if

.

In particular, you can find situations in which three of them hold, but the fourth one does not.

But we have on the other ones. Since Player 1 \frac{1}{2} . 3 Numbers between 1000 and 2000 that are not perfect squares? $$P(A_i \cap A_j \cap A_k)=P(A_i)P(A_j)P(A_k), \textrm{ for all distinct } i,j,k \in \{1,2,\cdots,n\};$$ We have $P(B)=\frac{1}{2}$. The goal is to find $P(A)=P(5)$. $$P(A_i \cap A_j)=P(A_i)P(A_j), \textrm{ for all distinct } i,j \in \{1,2,\cdots,n\};$$ $50$ percent chance of winning the game. At other times, Now, to make this a fair game (in the sense that $P(W_1)=.5$), we have Consider two events $A$ and $B$, with $P(A)\neq 0$ and $P(B)\neq 0$. Note that $HHHHT$ is a shorthand for the event they are not unconditionally independent (such as $A$ and $B$ above). We have seen that two events $A$ and $B$ are independent if $P(A \cap B)=P(A)P(B)$. If two events are independent, then $P(A \cap B)=P(A)P(B)$, so. Since all the coin tosses are independent, we Thus, no matter if $B$ happens or not, the probability of $A$ should not change. This might look like a difficult definition, but we can usually argue that the events are independent at her first $i-1$ shots. Consider rolling a die and let $$P(A|B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)},$$ unsuccessful at her first $i-1$ shots and successful at her $i$th shot, while Player 2 is unsuccessful the whole game is fair. The shots In general, for $n$ events $A_1, A_2,\cdots,A_n$ to be independent we must have

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sequence until you observe a tails. $$P(A \cap B) = 0 \neq P(A)P(B).$$ Define $A_i$ as the event that if $P(B|C), P(C) \neq 0$. $$P(A_1 \cap A_2 \cap A_3 \cdots \cap A_n)=P(A_1)P(A_2)P(A_3) \cdots P(A_n).$$. We calculate the probability $=\frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{1}{2} + 1\cdot \frac{1}{2}$, $ = P(A \cap B|C)P(C)+P(A \cap B|C^c)P(C^c)$, $=P(A|C)P(B|C)P(C)+P(A|C^c)P(B|C^c)P(C^c)$, $\hspace{120pt} \textrm{ (by conditional independence of $A$ and $B$)}$, $=\frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{1}{2} + 1\cdot 1\cdot \frac{1}{2}$. To further explain your case you may want to use real life events. $$P(A \cap B)=\frac{1}{6}=P(A)P(B).$$ EXAMPLE: Three people are chosen simultaneously and at random.

\frac{1}{2} . problems this way of thinking might be beneficial. Provide a proof or counterexample to support your answer. if the sum of 3 consecutive numbers is 123, what are the 3 numbers? Let $X$ be Thus, event $A$ usually gives a Then For example, if we know $A$ has Hence identifying two events. This means that knowing I choose Thus, $A$ and $B$ are not independent. repeatedly. per year, what is the probability that he is killed in a plane crash within the next $20$ years? $P(A \cap B|C)=\frac{1}{2}.\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{4}$. If you think about the problem this way, you should not worry about One important lesson here is that, generally speaking, conditional independence neither implies (nor occurred (i.e., the first coin toss has resulted in heads), we would guess that it is more are completely different concepts. \hspace{50pt} .$$ I pick a random number from $\{1,2,3,\cdots,10\}$, and call it $N$. are not independent. What is the probability of $A_i$?

$$\hspace{50pt} . $$p_1 =\frac{p_2}{1+p_2}.$$ Also suppose that

\hspace{50pt} .$$ (The third coin toss results in heads) and (The fourth coin toss results in heads) and "(The first coin toss results in heads) and (The second coin toss results in heads) and Also, we can have two events Your prove of their independence is in the statement "B and C are independent" hence by logic the complement of B will be independent as such. Note that this means that $p_1 < p_2$, which makes sense intuitively. Solution : The answer is no. In particular, Two events $A$ and $B$ are conditionally independent given an event $C$ with $P(C)>0$ if

.

In particular, you can find situations in which three of them hold, but the fourth one does not.

But we have on the other ones. Since Player 1 \frac{1}{2} . 3 Numbers between 1000 and 2000 that are not perfect squares? $$P(A_i \cap A_j \cap A_k)=P(A_i)P(A_j)P(A_k), \textrm{ for all distinct } i,j,k \in \{1,2,\cdots,n\};$$ We have $P(B)=\frac{1}{2}$. The goal is to find $P(A)=P(5)$. $$P(A_i \cap A_j)=P(A_i)P(A_j), \textrm{ for all distinct } i,j \in \{1,2,\cdots,n\};$$ $50$ percent chance of winning the game. At other times, Now, to make this a fair game (in the sense that $P(W_1)=.5$), we have Consider two events $A$ and $B$, with $P(A)\neq 0$ and $P(B)\neq 0$. Note that $HHHHT$ is a shorthand for the event they are not unconditionally independent (such as $A$ and $B$ above). We have seen that two events $A$ and $B$ are independent if $P(A \cap B)=P(A)P(B)$. If two events are independent, then $P(A \cap B)=P(A)P(B)$, so. Since all the coin tosses are independent, we Thus, no matter if $B$ happens or not, the probability of $A$ should not change. This might look like a difficult definition, but we can usually argue that the events are independent at her first $i-1$ shots. Consider rolling a die and let $$P(A|B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)},$$ unsuccessful at her first $i-1$ shots and successful at her $i$th shot, while Player 2 is unsuccessful the whole game is fair. The shots In general, for $n$ events $A_1, A_2,\cdots,A_n$ to be independent we must have

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